5. More than one of the above
Given that the left lower lobe lesion has shown enlargement, resection is an appropriate strategy. Although unlikely, the possibility of a collision tumor cannot be excluded, Furthermore, some external compression on the left lower lobe airways was noted at bronchoscopy, and should the mass grow larger, this issue could worsen and could potentially contribute to recurrent pneumonia. However, these are low likelihood considerations, and conservative management is also reasonable since risks are associated with thoracic surgery. Corticosteroid therapy would not affect the left lower lobe mass, and there is no indication that the patient’s hypereosinophilic syndrome has returned, and hence there is no reason to initiate such treatment. 18FDG-PET would not be of value in this patient now that the histology of the left lower lobe lesion is known.).
Thoracic surgery consultation was obtained, and 18FDG-PET scanning was suggested (Figure 10).
Figure 10. 18FDG-PET for assessment of the left lower lobe hamartoma. A: Axial unenhanced CT correction image shows a non-calcified left lower lobe mass (arrowhead) on axial (B), coronal (C), and sagittal (D) PET images (arrowheads). The lingular pneumonia has resolved to a metabolically active pulmonary nodule (arrows, E and F). To view Figure 10 in a separate, enlarged window click here.
Regarding this examination, which of the following is correct? (Click on the correct answer to be directed to the 17th and final page)
